By LuckyLoser9 - 03/11/2011 15:44 - United States

Today, I found out that absentmindedly correcting my boss's use of the word "whom" could result in my immediate termination. FML
I agree, your life sucks 29 784
You deserved it 8 996
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Comments

JR11 5

You're lame for knowing the difference between who and whom.

3 7
THE_A_TEEN 27

You're lame for calling some one who knows their grammar more than you.

3 1
HahaYDI 0

Could be considered insubordination, I suppose. You have to see it from both sides. Although firing you seems a tad extreme.

3 2
suprmidgt 0

Yeah that's how grammar nazis deserve to be treated. If you're not asked for your opinion don't give it.

2 4
TheDrummingResul 0

Your post should actually read "misuse" not "use". Found it ironic.

3 1
braybo 0

I think it's funny you can comment on his use of whom but you don't realize it's boss' not boss's. Hahaha

1 2
Googolman 29

Hahahahaha No. An apostraphe without an 's' after it is showing possession of a group of people (assuming the word is plural with an 's' at the end). For example: girls' washroom. Also, since the plural of boss is bosses, boss' would be gramatically incorrect in any situation.

2 0
leadman1989 15

It was the absent minded grammar nazi salute and heiling that freaked your JEWISH boss out a little bit!

1 4
NoSpace_fml 6

I'm from France and i've never understand when to use it. If somebody could explain to me, would be greatful :)

3 0
ohSNAPyall 26

"Who" / "whoever" must be used as a subject. "Whom" / "whomever" must be used as an object. A good rule of thumb: Decide whether you could substitute the pronoun above for "she" / "he" or "her" / "him." If you could substitute "she" / "he," use "who." If you could substitute "her" / "him," use "whom."

1 1
HappyPickles 11

... or, a probably easier way to explain this to someone who speaks a European language is: "whom" is the accusative of "who". :o)

1 2